View Full Version : Kalasha
ninurta2008
June 17th, 2009, 04:19 PM
Anyone know where to find the mythology of the kalasha peoples of Pakistan? They are non-buddhist, non-zoroastrian, non-hindu and non-islam or anything else. They claim to be descended from macedonian soldiers, but dna says otherwise. But where can i read up on their mythology?
Toby Stimpson
June 17th, 2009, 07:25 PM
What an interesting question. I had never heard of this group before!
I wasn' able to find a lot of information online, which makes sense. One of the major issues with studying smaller ethnic groups in South Asia is that a lot of what is written about them is either grossly out of date, limited articles, grossly biassed with Hindu or Muslim pov, or just doesn't exist.
I was able to find some interesting stuff on Jstor, if you have access to it.
I'd also start looking into different terminology. for example: Kafirs, Indigenous populations of Pakistan, people of Chitral...etc.
I did find this:
http://www.indigenouspeople.net/chitral.htm
ninurta2008
June 30th, 2009, 01:08 AM
Thats them. Kafirs is a derogatory name for them, it means blind in arabic. I am suprised pakistanis use that word since its arabic. But thanks!
Toby Stimpson
June 30th, 2009, 01:18 AM
Thats them. Kafirs is a derogatory name for them, it means blind in arabic. I am suprised pakistanis use that word since its arabic. But thanks!
It is derogatory, true. But a lot of research on afghan and Pakistani indigenous and tribal groups usually is found with the terms Kafirs, because in the early 20th century, it's the term that was applied to them. I guess because Pakistan is a Muslim country as is Afghanistan, arabic being Islam's holy language will be adopted.
But isn't it also part of Sharia law that groups under the term kafir are allowed to practice their religion? That may be why the term is used.
ninurta2008
July 9th, 2009, 01:58 PM
It is derogatory, true. But a lot of research on afghan and Pakistani indigenous and tribal groups usually is found with the terms Kafirs, because in the early 20th century, it's the term that was applied to them. I guess because Pakistan is a Muslim country as is Afghanistan, arabic being Islam's holy language will be adopted.
But isn't it also part of Sharia law that groups under the term kafir are allowed to practice their religion? That may be why the term is used.
Actually arabic isnt the main language of either country, there are better english speakers in pakistan than those who speak arabic. they can read it because of the Quran unless its translated to Urdu/Pashtu, the main languages of the 2 countries are Urdu, Pashtu, Balochi, Tajik and a few others.
Toby Stimpson
July 9th, 2009, 08:23 PM
Actually arabic isnt the main language of either country, there are better english speakers in pakistan than those who speak arabic. they can read it because of the Quran unless its translated to Urdu/Pashtu, the main languages of the 2 countries are Urdu, Pashtu, Balochi, Tajik and a few others.
I dont believe I ever said that Arabic was the main language. However both countries are Islamic countries and Islam is taught in arabic, although translations are also made. Many Masjids and maddrassas pray in arabic and use arabic. People dont speak it ofcourse and I never said they did. But you asked the question why the group would be called 'kafirs' and I gave an explanation as to why.
ninurta2008
July 26th, 2009, 09:07 AM
I dont believe I ever said that Arabic was the main language. However both countries are Islamic countries and Islam is taught in arabic, although translations are also made. Many Masjids and maddrassas pray in arabic and use arabic. People dont speak it ofcourse and I never said they did. But you asked the question why the group would be called 'kafirs' and I gave an explanation as to why.
I see, kinda like how many jews read and pray in hebrew?
Toby Stimpson
July 26th, 2009, 11:56 AM
I see, kinda like how many jews read and pray in hebrew?
Exactly. Its also how Hindus use sanskrit, and Catholics use Latin in their masses. Arabic, Latin, Hebrew and Sanskrit are all classed as 'perfected languages' by those four religions. It's mostly to do with tradition, but also the concept that if you go too far from the source you'll become flawed. Since the major religious leaders and texts are originally written in those languags, they become sacred. In the case of Islam, quite a few Muslims do not see translated versions of the Koran as holy, because through translation, they lose a certain qaulity of the original and don't mean exactly the same thing, only an approximate translation. Thats why even in Afghanistan and Pakistan and other Muslim populated countries many words will be arabic.
ninurta2008
July 29th, 2009, 01:39 AM
Exactly. Its also how Hindus use sanskrit, and Catholics use Latin in their masses. Arabic, Latin, Hebrew and Sanskrit are all classed as 'perfected languages' by those four religions. It's mostly to do with tradition, but also the concept that if you go too far from the source you'll become flawed. Since the major religious leaders and texts are originally written in those languags, they become sacred. In the case of Islam, quite a few Muslims do not see translated versions of the Koran as holy, because through translation, they lose a certain qaulity of the original and don't mean exactly the same thing, only an approximate translation. Thats why even in Afghanistan and Pakistan and other Muslim populated countries many words will be arabic.
Thanks for clearing that up! :thumbsup:
I was confused at first.:uhhuhuh:
Toby Stimpson
July 29th, 2009, 01:42 AM
Thanks for clearing that up! :thumbsup:
I was confused at first.:uhhuhuh:
It's all good, you cleared up the Mesopotamian religions stuff for me :). it's always interesting the interaction between social norms and religion.
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